UNION BUDGET 2013-14 HIGHLIGHTS

FINANCIAL HIGHLIGHTS

• In 2013-14, the budget estimate is Rs 16,65,297 crore.
• The revised expenditure target is Rs 14,30,825 crore
• Plan expenditure Rs 5,55, 322 crore
• Rs 14,000 crore capital infusion into public sector banks in 2013—14
• Fiscal deficit :
• Fiscal deficit seen at 5.2 %  of GDP in 2012/13
• Fiscal deficit seen at 4.8 %  of GDP in 2013/14
• Fiscal deficit to 3 % by 2016/17
• Revenue Deficit
• Revenue Deficit seen at 3.9 % 2012/13
• Revenue Deficit seen at 3.3 % 2013/14
• Revenue deficit to 1.9% by 2016-17

PERSONAL TAX

• No changes in personal Income Tax slabs or rates
• Surcharge on super rich
• Surcharge of 10% for income of Rs 1 cr or more per annum for one year
• 10% surcharge to be applicable for individuals, HUFs, firms and entities with similar tax status
• Surcharge increased from 5% to 10% on domestic companies whose taxable income exceeds Rs 10 crore per year
• 1% TDS for property sale worth more than Rs 50 lakh; agri land exempt
• Tax credit of Rs 2000 on incomes between Rs2-5 lakh
• 5.5% tax to GDP ratio for direct tax
• 4.5% tax to GDP ratio for indirect tax
• Tax administration reform commission to be set up to strengthen the system
• Our tax to GDP ratio is very low
• Should reclaim 11.9% Tax-GDP ratio in short-term
• There are 42,800 persons in the country who admitted to a taxable income exceeding Rs 1 cr per year
• Donations to National Children’s Fund will be eligible for 100% tax deduction
• Long-term infra bonds also eligible for tax deduction; additional Rs 1 lakh deduction for home loans
• TDS on value of immovable property as transaction on immovable properties are usually undervalued
• Extends tax cuts benefits to Rupee Infrastructure Funds
• Educational Cess to continue at 3 %
• Securitization Trust income to be exempt
• Tax on royalty and fees for technical services to NRIs increased from 10% to 25%.
• Permissible premium rate of life insurance policies increased from 10% to 15% for persons with disability and certain ailments
• Contributions to schemes of Central and state govts similar to Central Government Health Scheme, eligible for exemption under Section 80D of the Income Tax Act

CORPORATE TAX

• CTT on non-commodities futures at 0.1%
• Surcharge on DDT doubled to 10%
• A final withholding tax at the rate of 20 percent on profits distributed by unlisted companies to shareholders through buyback of shares
• E-filing of tax returns to be made mandatory for more sectors

 INDIRECT TAXES

• No change in peak rate for CD non-agri products
• Eco friendly concessions to be prolonged till 2015
• Duty on specified machinery for leather cut from 7.5 to 5%
• Export duty on deoiled rice bran cake withdrawn
• Import duty on set-top boxes increased to 10% from 5%
• Import duty on raw silk increased to 15% from 5%
• Taxing the rich further: Duty on imported goods like motor vehicles, yatchs and motor cycles increased
• Leather and goods duty reduced to 5%
• Luxury cars import duty at 100%
• Yachts duty at 25%
• Luxury motorcycle duty at 75%
• No change in customs duty of 10%
• No change in excise duty or service tax
• Precious, semi-precious duty reduced
• Luxury motor vehicles to be taxed more
• Equalise duty on grades of coal. 2% Customs and CVD duty on coal
• Cigarattes hit with an 18% rise in excise duty. So also cigars and cheerots.
• Excise duties on personal SUVs increased, Excise duty on SUVs hiked to 30% from 27%. No duty on those used as taxi.
• No CVD on imported parts – for shipbuiding
• All silver to attract excise of 4%.
• Mobile phones priced over Rs 2,000 to attract 6% duty
• Service tax on all A/C restaurants with over 2,000 sq ft proposed
• Voluntary Compliance Encouragement Scheme for Service Tax payers
• Chidambaram says Direct Taxes after changes will yield Rs 13,300 crore and indirect taxes. Rs 4,700 crore.
• Rs 9,000 crore for balance CST compensation to the States proposed.
• Baggage rules to permit bringing jewelry duty free limit raised to Rs. 50000 for males and Rs. 1 lakh for females
• Excise duty on set top box increased
• 6% duty on mobiles costing more than Rs 2000
• Handmade carpets exempt for excise duty
• Advocates need for GST

ALLOCATION

• An additional sum of Rs 200 crore for women and childwelfare schemes to end discrimination.
• Nirbhaya Fund of Rs 1,000 crore — women and girl child related schemes
• Health for all, education for all will remain a priority, he said. Rs 150 crore proposed for health scheme for old. Ayurveda, Unani, Homeopathy to be mainstreamed; stresses on care for elderly (geriatric care).
• Education to get Rs 65,867 crore, 17% more than last year’s RE. Aligarh, Varanasi universities get Rs 100 crore.
• MID-DAY MEAL scheme will get Rs 13,215 crore; 
• CHILD DEVELOPMENT scheme to get Rs 17,700 crore which is 11.2% higher than last year’s.
• Proposes 1,000s of scholarships for students of SC, ST, OBC and women.
• Clean drinking water and sanitation – to get over Rs 15,000 crore
• Rs 1,500 crore towards setting up water purification plants
• MNREGS to get about Rs 33,000 crore
• Rural Development Schemes to get Rs 80,194 crore
• AGRICULTURE SECTOR to get Rs 24,049 crore
• Interest subvention scheme – Rs 1,000 crore for Eastern States growing rice
• Water shed management: For crops rich with micronutrients.. research programe of up to Rs 200 crore. Pilots rejuvinating cococunt gardens to be extended all over Kerala. The pilot scheme will get an additional Rs 75 crore.
• Allocation to Agricultural Ministry increased 22% to Rs 27,049 crore for 2013-14.
• Agricultural Research to get Rs 3,415 crore in 2013-14.
• Farmers Producers Organisations–to get matching grant, and credit enhancement scheme
• Over and above food subsidy, Rs 10,000 crore set apart for food security Bill.
• Credit disbursement to farmers targeted at Rs 7 lakh crore in 2013-14. Target of Rs 5,75,000 crore exceeded in 2012-13.
• Budget 2013-14 proposes Rs 5,000 crore for Nabard to finance construction of warehousses, cold storage silos, godowns to storage agriculture produce.
• NABARD’S RIDF corpus to be increased to Rs 20,000 crore from Rs 19,000 crore.

ENERGY SECTOR

• Waste to energy projects. Scheme to allow cities and municipalities to take up waste to energy projects on PPP mode. Waste to energy projects undertaken by municipalities to get viability gap funding
• Low cost finance for renewable energy projects. Life span for five years. Rs 800 crore for generation-based incentives for wind energy.
• Low interest bearing funds from National Clean Energy Fund to IREDA to lend for clean energyprojects
• New criteria to define backward regions: per capita, literacy and other human development indicators.

FINANCIAL SECTOR

• Standing Council of experts within the Finance Ministry– examining transaction cost and will analyse international financial sector.
• PSU banks will have ATMs in all their branches by 2014. India’s first public sector bank for women proposed with Rs 1,000 crore as initial capital.
• Rs 2,000 crore for urban housing fund to be set up by NHB.

DEFENCE SECTOR

• Defence allocation increased to Rs 2,03,672 crore. Department of Space to get Rs 5,615 crore; Rs 6,275 crore allocated to the Ministry of Science and Technology; Atomic Energy to get Rs 5,880 crore; Rs 200 crore fund to scale up S&T innovations to reach common man.

OTHER HIGHLIGHTS

• Road construction sector faces challenges. An independent authority for the road transport sector has been proposed. About 3,000 km of roads to be awarded in the first six months of 2013-14.
• Chennai-Bengaluru Industrial Corridor has been proposed with Japanese funding support.
• Stating that five inland waterways have been declared as national, the river in Assam will be the sixth. He said barge operators will be selected through PPP to move bulk cargo through waterways. He said two new ports will be set up in Sagar in West Bengal and in Andhra Pradesh.
• Tax free bonds in 2013-14 up to Rs 50,000 crore.
• Households must be incentivised to invest in mutual funds and listed shares rather than gold, said Chidambaram.
• Income limit for tax-savings under “Rajiv Gandhi Equity Savings Scheme” has been raised to Rs 12 lakh from Rs 10 lakh. Inflation-indexed bonds will be announced on June 1.
• First time home buyers, taking loan of up to Rs 25 lakh in FY 13-14, will get additional interest benefit of Rs 1 lakh.
• SIDBI will get more funds to provide finance to MSMEs; corpus of Rs 500 crore proposed for SIDBI set up credit guuarantee fund.
• Modernisation of powerloom sector; Rs 50 crore for apparel parks proposed.
• The New Companies Bill, when enacted into a law, mandates corporates to spend 2% of their net profits for CSR activities.
• Rs 50 crore for environment schemes for textile units; Rs 96 crore for Textile Ministry interest subvention.
• Private FM channels to reach 294 new cities, 839 new channels to be auctioned in 2013-14. All cities with over one lakh population will be covered by private channels.
• Central Sponsored Scheme to be restructured. Numbers to be brought down to 70 from 173.
• Technology: Over Rs 400 crore to make to make Post Offices IT-linked and provide real-time based banking services.
• Sports: Rs 250 crore to set up National Institute of Sports Coaching at Patiala over 3 years
• Insurance companies will be allowed to open branches in Tier two citites without IRDA’S APPROVAL.LIC will be allowed to open branches in all towns with over population of 10,000.
• RSBY will cover autorickshaw pullers, taxi drivers, sanitation workers, rag pickers
• Third quarter GDP: This is Chidambaram’s first Budget for UPA-II and the last full fledged one before general elections next year.
• The third quarter GDP growth that is exepected later this evening is expected to show a weak print, signalling no evidence of growth bottoming out.

IBPS PO 2012 PAPER–Reasoning

• IBPS PO 2012 PAPER–Reasoning
  
  

  	Directions (Questions: 1- 4): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
  	A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the numbers are two digits numbers)
  	Input : tall 38 13 rise alt 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56 barn Step I : 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56 barn alt Step II : 28 13 talk 48 ruse 99 76 32 wise jar high 56 alt barn Step III : 32 28 13 tall 48 rise 99 76wise jar 56 alt barn high Step IV : 48 32 28 13 tall rise 99 76wise 56 alt barn high jar Step V : 56 48 3228 13 tall 9976wise alt barn high jar rise Step VI : 76 56 48 32 28 13 99 wise alt barn high jar rise tall Step VII : 99 76 56 48 32 28 13 alt barn high jar rise tall wise
  	And Step VII is the last step of the above input, as the desired arrangement is obtained.
  	As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input.
  	Input : 84 why sit 14 32 not best ink feet 51 27 vain 68 92 (All the numbers are two digits numbers)
  1	Which step number is the following output?
  	32 27 14 84 why sit not 51 vain 92 68 feet best ink
  	(1) Step V
  	(2) Step VI
  	(3) Step IV
  	(4) Step III
  	(5) There is not such step
  2	Which word/number would be at 5th position from the right in Step V?
  	(1) 14
  	(2) 92
  	(3) feet
  	(4) best
  	(5) why
  3	How many elements (words or numbers) are there between ‘feet’ and ‘32’ as they appear in the last step of the output?
  	(1) One
  	(2) Three
  	(3) Four
  	(4) Five
  	(5) Seven
  4	Which of the following represents the position of ‘why’ in the fourth step?
  	(1) Eight from the left
  	(2) Fifth from the right
  	(3) Sixth form the left
  	(4) Fifth from the left
  	(5) Seventh from the left
  	Directions (Questions: 5- 11): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions:
  	• A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order.
  	• B sits second to left of H’s husband. No female is an immediate neighbor of B.
  	• D’s daughter sits second to right of F. F is the sister of G. F is not an immediate neighbor of H’s husband.
  	• Only one person sits between A and F. A is the father of G. H’s brother Dsits to the immediate left of H’s mother. Only one person sits between H’smother and E.
  	• Only one person sits between H and G. G is the mother of C. G is not an immediate neighbor of E.
  5	What is position of A with respect to his mother-in-law?
  	(1) Immediate left
  	(2) Third to the right
  	(3) Third to the left
  	(4) Second to the right
  	(5) Fourth to the left
  6	Who amongst the following is D’s daughter?
  	(1) B
  	(2) C
  	(3) E
  	(4) G
  	(5) H
  7	What is the position of A with respect to his grandchild?
  	(1) Immediate right
  	(2) Third to the right
  	(3) Third to the left
  	(4) Second to the left
  	(5) Fourth to the left
  8	How many people sit between G and her uncle?
  	(1) One
  	(2) Two
  	(3) Three
  	(4) Four
  	(5) More than four
  9	Four of the following five are alike in a certain was based on the given information and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
  	(1) F
  	(2) C
  	(3) E
  	(4) H
  	(5) G
  10	Which of the following is true with respect to the given seating arrangement?
  	(1) C is the cousin of E
  	(2) H and H’s husband are immediate neighbours of each other
  	(3) No female is an immediate neighbour of C
  	(4) H sits third to left of her daughter
  	(5) B is the mother of H
  11	Who sits to the immediate left of C?
  	(1) F’s grandmother
  	(2) G’s son
  	(3) D’s mother-in-law
  	(4) A
  	(5) G
  	Directions (Questions: 12- 18): In each group of questions below are two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two/ three statements disregarding commonly known facts.
  	Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows;
  	Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows;
  	Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows;
  	Give answer (4) if either conclusion I nor conclusion II follows;
  	Give answer (5) if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow.
  12	Statements: Some exams are tests. No exam is a question.
  	Conclusions: I. No equation is a test. II.Some tests are definitely not exams.
  	Questions: 13-14. Statements: All forces are energies. All energies are powers. No power is heat.
  13	Conclusions: I. Some forces are definitely not powers. II. No heat is forces.
  14	Conclusions: I. No energy id heat. II. Some forces being that is a possibility.
  	Questions: 15-16. Statements: No note is a coin. Some coins are metals. All plastics are notes.
  15	Conclusions: I. No coin is plastic. II. All plastics being metals is a possibility.
  16	Conclusions: I. Not metal is plastic. II. All notes are plastics.
  17	Statements: Some symbols are figures. All symbols are graphics. No graphic is a picture.
  	Conclusions: I. Some graphics are figures. II. No symbol is a picture.
  18	Statements: All vacancies are jobs. Some jobs are occupations.
  	Conclusions: I. All vacancies are occupations. II. All occupations being vacancies is a possibility.
  	Directions (Questions: 19-21): Study the following information carefully to answer the given question:
  	Each of the six friends, A, B, C, D, E and F second different marks in an examination. C scored more than only. A and E. D scored less than only B. E did not score the least. The one who scored the third highest marks scored 81marks. E scored 62 marks.
  19	Which of the following could possibly be C’s score?
  	(1) 70
  	(2) 91
  	(3) 86
  	(4) 61
  	(5) 81
  20	Which of the following is true with respect to the given information?
  	(1) D’s score was definitely less than 60
  	(2) F scored the maximum marks
  	(3) Only two people scored more than C
  	(4) There is a possibility that B scored 79 marks
  	(5) None is true
  21	The person who scored the maximum, scored 13 marks more than F’s marks. Which of the following can be D’s score?
  	(1) 94
  	(2) 60
  	(3) 89
  	(4) 78
  	(5) 81
  	Directions (Questions: 22-29): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions:
  	Eight person from different viz. UCO bank, Syndicate bank, Canara bank, PNB, Dena Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Indian bank and Bank of Maharashtra are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 A, B, C and D are seated and all of them are facing with south. In row-2 P, Q, R and S are seated and all of them are facing north. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row.
  	(All the information given above
  	does not necessarily represent the order of
  	seating as in the final arrangement)
  	• C sits second to right of the person from Bank of Maharashtra. R is an immediate neighbour of the person who faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
  	• Only one person sits between R and the person for PNB. Immediate neighbour of the person from PNB faces the person from Canara Bank.
  	• The person from UCO bank faces the person from Oriental Bank of Commerce. R is not from Oriental Bank of Commerce. P is not from PNB. P does not face the person from Bank of Maharashtra.
  	• Q faces the person from Dena bank. The one who faces S sits to the immediate left of A.
  	• B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The person from Bank of Maharashtra does not face the person from Syndicate bank.
  22	Which of the following is true regarding A?
  	(1) The person from UCO bank faces A
  	(2) The person from Bank of Maharashtra is an immediate neighbour of A
  	(3) A faces the person who sits second to right of R
  	(4) A is from Oriental Bank of Commerce
  	(5) A sits at one of the extreme ends of the line
  23	Who is seated between R and the person from PNB?
  	(1) The person from Oriental Bank of Commerce
  	(2) P
  	(3) Q
  	(4) The person from Syndicate bank
  	(5) S
  24	Who amongst the following sit at extreme ends of the rows?
  	(1) D and the person from PNB
  	(2) The person from Indian bank of UCO bank
  	(3) The person from Dena bank and P
  	(4) The person from Syndicate bank and D
  	(5) C, Q
  25	Who amongst the following faces the person Bank of Maharashtra?
  	(1) The person from Indian bank
  	(2) P
  	(3) R
  	(4) The person from Syndicate bank
  	(5) The person from Canara bank
  26	P is related to Dena bank in the same way as B is related to PNB based on the given arrangement. To who amongst the following id D related to, following the same pattern?
  	(1) Syndicate bank
  	(2) Canara Bank
  	(3) Bank of Maharashtra
  	(4) Indian bank
  	(5) Oriental Bank of Commerce
  27	Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given seating arrangement and thus from a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
  	(1) Canara bank
  	(2) R
  	(3) Syndicate bank
  	(4) Q
  	(5) Oriental Bank Of Maharashtra
  28	Who amongst the following is form Syndicate bank?
  	(1) C
  	(2) R
  	(3) P
  	(4) D
  	(5) A
  29	C is from which of the following banks?
  	(1) Dena bank
  	(2) Oriental Bank of Commerce
  	(3) UCO bank
  	(4) Syndicate bank
  	(5) Canara bank
  	Directions (Questions: 30- 34): Each of the question below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question.
  	Read all the three statements and—
  	Give answer (1) if the data in Statement I and II are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement III are not required to answer the question
  	Give answer (2) if the data in Statement I and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement III are not required to answer the question
  	Give answer (3) if the data in Statement II and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement III are not required to answer the question
  	Give answer (4) if the data in either Statement I alone or Statement II alone or Statement III alone are sufficient to answer the question.
  	Give answer (5) if the data in all Statement I, II and III together are necessary to answer the question.
  30	Among six people P, Q, R, S, T and V each lives on a different floor of a six storey building having six floors numbered one to six (the ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above it, number 2 and so on and the topmost floor is numbered 6). Who lives on the topmost floor?
  	(1) There is only one floor between the floors on which R and Q live. P lives on an even numbered floor.
  	(2) T does not live on an even numbered floor. Q lives on an even numbered floor. Q does not live on the topmost floor.
  	(3) S lives on an odd numbered floor. There are two floors between the floors on which S and P live. T lives on a floor immediately above R’s floor.
  31	There are six letters W, A, R, S, N and E. Is ‘ANSWER’ the word formed after performing the following operations using these sex letters only?
  	(1) E is placed fourth to the right of A. S is not placed immediately next to either A or E.
  	(2) R is placed immediately net (either left or right) to E. W is placed immediately next (either left or right) to S.
  	(3) Both N and W are placed immediately next to S. The word does not begin with R. A is not placed immediately next to W.
  32	Point D is in which direction with respect to Point B?
  	(1) Point A is to the west of Point B. Point C is to the north of Point B. Point D is 9m from Point B.
  	(2) Point G is to the south of Point D. Point G is 4m from Point B. Point D is 9m from Point B.
  	(3) Point A is to the west of Point B. Point B is exactly midway between Points A and E.
  	(4) Point F is to the south of Point E. Point D is to the west of Point F.
  33	How is ‘one’ coded in the code language?
  	(1) ‘one of its kind’ is coded as ‘zo pi ko fe’ in kind and cash’ is coded as ‘ga to ru ko’
  	(2) ‘its point for origin’ is coded as ‘ba le fe mi’ and ‘make a point clear’ is coded as ‘yu si mi de’
  	(3) ‘make money and cash’ is coded as ‘tu mi ru hy’ and ‘money of various kind’ is coded as ‘qu ko zo hy’.
  34	Are all the four friends viz. A, B, C and D who are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre?
  	(1) B sits second to right of D. D faces the centre. C sits to immediate right of both B and D.
  	(2) A sits to immediate left of B. C is not an immediate neighbour of A. C sits to immediate right of D.
  	(3) D is an immediate neighbour of both A and C. B sits to the immediate left of A. C is sits to the immediate right of B.
  35	Read the following information carefully and answer the question which follows:
  	Farmers found using chemical fertilizers in the organic-farming area of their farms would be heavily fined.
  	Which of the following statement is an assumption implicit in the given statement?
  	(1) Chemical fertilizers harm the crop.
  	(2) A farm’s area for organic and chemical farming is different
  	(3) Farmers who do not use chemical fertilizers in the chemical farming area would be penalized as well.
  	(4) All farmers undertake both these kinds of farming (chemical as well as organic) in their farms.
  	(5) Organic fertilizers are banned in the area for chemical farming.
  	Directions (Questions: 36- 40): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow:
  	Small brands are now looking beyond local grocary stores adn are tying up with Supermarkets such as Big Bazar to pull their business out of troubled waters.
  36	Which of the following can be inferred from the given information? (An inference is something that is not directly states but can be inferred from the given information)
  	(1) Merchandise of smaller brands would not be available at local grocery stores in the near future.
  	(2) Smaller brands cannot compete with bigger one in a supermarket set-up.
  	(3) There is a perception among small brands that sale in a supermarket is higher than that of small grocery stores.
  	(4) Supermarkets generate more revenue by selling products of bigger brands as compared to the smaller ones.
  	(5) Smaller brands have always had more tie-ups with supermarkets as compared to small grocery stores.
  	Directions (Questions: 37- 40): 37-40. These questions are based on the information given above and the sentences labeled (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F), as given below.
  	(A) A smaller brand manufacturing a certain product of quality comparable with that of a bigger brand, makes much more profit from the local grocery stores than from the supermarkets.
  	(B) As the supermarkets have been set up only in bigger cities at present, this step would fail to deliver result in the smaller cities.
  	(C) Supermarkets help the smaller brands to break into newer markets without investing substantially in distribution.
  	(D) Supermarkets charge the smaller brands 10% higher than the amount charged to the bigger brands.
  	(E) Being outnumbered by the bigger brands, visibility of the smaller at local grocery stores is much lower as compared to the supermarkets.
  	(f) Smaller brands are currently making substantial losses in their businesses.
  37	Which of the statements numbered (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) can be assumed from the facts/information given in the statement? (An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted)
  	(1) Only (A)
  	(2) Only (B)
  	(3) Both (B) and (C)
  	(4) Both (C) and (D)
  	(5) Only (F)
  38	Which of the statements numbered (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F)  represents a disadvantage of the small grocery stores over the Supermarkets from the perspective of a smaller brand?
  	(1) Only (A)
  	(2) Only (C)
  	(3) Only (E)
  	(4) Only (F)
  	(5) Both (B) and (C)
  39	Which of the statements (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) mentioned above represents a reason for the shift from local grocery stores to supermarkets by the smaller brands?
  	(1) Only (A)
  	(2) Only (B)
  	(3) Only (D)
  	(4) Both (A) and (D)
  	(5) Both (C) and (E)
  40	Which of the statements numbered (A), (B), (C) (E) and (F) mentioned above should prove that the step taken by the smaller brands (of moving to supermarkets) may not necessarily be correct?
  	(1) Only (A)
  	(2) Only (C)
  	(3) Only (E)
  	(4) Only (F)
  	(5) Both (B) and (5)
  	Directions (Questions: 41- 50): In each of the question given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued?
  41
  42
  43
  44
  45
  	Directions (Questions: 46- 50): In each of the following question below, the figure follow a series/sequence (like Q. 41- 45). One and only one out of the five figures does not fit in the series/sequences. The number of that figure is your answer.
  46
  47
  48
  49
  50

  Check below for Answers…
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  Answers
  
  

  1.	4)
  2.	2)
  3.	2)
  4.	3)
  5.	4)
  6.	3)
  7.	1)
  8.	3)
  9.	2)
  10.	5)
  11.	1)
  12.	4)
  13.	2)
  14.	1)
  15.	5)
  16.	4)
  17.	5)
  18.	2)
  19.	1)
  20.	5)
  21.	3)
  22.	2)
  23.	5)
  24.	4)
  25.	1)
  26.	4)
  27.	4)
  28.	3)
  29.	5)
  30.	5)
  31.	1)
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  35.	4)
  36.	3)
  37.	1)
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  40.	5)
  41.	2)
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  44.	3)
  45.	5)
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  47.	4)
  48.	5)
  49.	1)
  50.	5)

IMPORTANT INFORMATION ON RBI

IMPORTANT INFORMATION ON RBI

1. Reserve Bank of India started its operations on-01 Apr 1935

2. Reserve was nationalised in ---1949

3. The maximum number of Deputy Governors RBI can have--4

4. Number of regional offices of RBI --28

5. RBI can issue notes upto the value of ---Rs. 10,000/-

6. As per Indian Coinage Act 1 Re coins can be used to pay/settle ------Any amount

7. As per Indian Coinage Act 0.50 ps coins can be used to pay/settle----- Amount not exceeding Rs. 10.

8. As per Indian Coinage Act coins worth less than 0.50 ps can be used to pay/settle----- Amount not exceeding Re. 1.(no longer applicable)

9. The logo of RBI has---A palm tree and a tiger

10. The H.O. of the RBI is in---Mumbai

11. The maximum amount for which customer's deposit is insured in a bank----Rs. 1,00,000

Institutions established by RBI and Head Office

1. Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation--Mumbai
2. National Housing Bank --New Delhi
3. National Bank for Agricultural and Rural Development--Mumbai
4. Securities Trading Corporation of India --Mumbai
5. Bharatiya Reserve Bank Note Mudran Private Limited--Bangalore
5. Industrial and Development Bank of India - Mumbai

• IBPS PO 2012 PAPER–English Language

  	Directions (Questions: 201-215): Read the following passage carefully and answer the question given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions.
  	When times are hard, doomsayers are aplenty. The problem is that if you listen to them too carefully, you tend to overlook the most obvious signs of change. 2011 was a bad year. Can 2012 be any worse? Doomsday forecasts are the easiest to make these days. So let’s try a contrarian’s forecast instead. Let’s start with the global economy. We have seen a steady flow of good news from the US. The employment situation seems to be improving rapidly and consumer sentiment, reflected in retail expenditures on discretionary items like electronics and clothes, has picked up. If these trends sustain, the US might post better growth numbers for 2012 than the 1.5 – 1.8 per cent being forecast currently. Japan is likely to pull out of a recession in 2012 as post-earthquake reconstruction efforts gather momentum and the fiscal stimulus announced in 2011 begins to pay off. The consensus estimate for growth in Japan is a respectable 2 per cent for 2012. The “hared-landing” scenario for China remains and will remain a myth. Growth might decelerate further from the 9 per cent that expected to clock in 2011 but is unlikely to drop below 8-8.5 per cent in 2012. Europe is certainly in a spot to trouble. It is perhaps already in recession and for 2012 it is likely to post mildly negative growth. The risk of implosion has dwindled over the last few months – peripheral economics like Greece, Italy and Spain have new governments in place and have made progress towards genuine economic reform. Even with some of these positive factors in place, we have to accept to fact that global growth in 2012 will be tepid. But there is a flipside to this. Softer growth means lower demand for commodities and this is likely to drive a correction in commodity prices. Lower commodity inflation will enable emerging market central banks to reserve their monetary stance. China, for instance, has already reversed its stance and has pared its reserve ratio twice. The RBI also seems poised for a reversal in its rate cycle as headline inflation seems well on its way to its target of 7 per cent for March 2012. That said, oil might be an exception to the general trend in commodities. Rising geographical tensions, particularly the continuing face-off between Iran and the US, might lead to a spurt in prices. It might make sense for our oil companies to hedge this risk instead of buying oil in the spot market. As inflation fears abate and emerging market central banks begins to cut rates, two things could happen. Lower commodity inflation would mean lower interest rates and better credit availability. This could set a floor to growth and slowly reverse the business cycle within these economies. Second, as the fear of untamed, runaway inflation in these economies abates, the global investor’s comfort levels with their markets will increase. Which of the emerging markets will outperform and who will get left being? In an environment in which global growth is likely to be weak, economies like India that have a powerful domestic consumption dynamic should lead; those dependent on exports should, prima facie, fall behind. Specifically for India, a fall in the exchange rate could not have come at a better time. It will help Indian exporters gain market share even if global trade remains depressed. More importantly, it could lead to massive import substitution that favours domestic producers. Let’s now focus on India and start with a caveat. It is important not to confuse a short-run cyclical dip with a permanent de-rating of its long-term structural potential. The arithmetic is simple. Our growth rate can bin the range of 7-10 per cent depending on policy action. Then per cent if we get everything right, 7 per cent if we get it all wrong. Which policies and reforms are critical to taking us to our 10 per cent potential? In judging this, let’s again be careful. Let’s not go by the laundry list of reforms that FLLs like to wave: increase in foreign equity limits in foreign shareholding, greater voting rights for institutional shareholders in banks, FDI in retail, etc. These can have an impact only at the margin. We need not bend over backwards to appease the FLLs through these reforms they will invest in our markets when momentum picks up and will be the first to exit when  the momentum flags, reforms or not. The reforms that we need are the ones that can actually raise our sustainable long-term growth rate. These have to come in areas’ like better targeting of subsides, making projects in infrastructure viable of that they draw capital, raising the productivity of agriculture, improving healthcare and education, bringing the parallel economy under the tax net, implementing fundamental reforms in taxation like GST and the direct tax code and finally easing the myriad rules and regulations that make doing business in India such a nightmare. A number of these things do not require new legislation and can be done through executive order.
  201	Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage?
  	(1) China’s economic growth may decline in the year 2012 as compared to the year 2011
  	(2) The European economy is not doing very well
  	(3) Greece is on the verge of bringing about economic reforms
  	(4) In the year 2012, Japan may post a positive growth and thus pull out of recession
  	(5) All are true
  202	Which of the following will possibly be a result of softer growth estimated for the year 2012?
  	(A) Prices of oil will not increase
  	(B) Credit availability would be lesser.
  	(C) Commodity inflation would be lesser.
  	(1) Only (B)
  	(2) Only (A) and (B)
  	(3) Only (A) and (C)
  	(4) Only (C)
  	(5) All (A), (B) and (C)
  203	Which of the following can be said about the present status of the US economy?
  	(1) There is not much improvement in the economic scenario of the country from the year 2011
  	(2) The growth in the economy of the county, in the year 2012, would definitely be lesser than 1.8 per cent
  	(3) The expenditure on clothes and electronic commodities, by consumers, is lesser than that in the year 2011
  	(4) There is a change that in 2012 the economy would be better than what has been forecast
  	(5) The pace of change in the employment scenario of the country is very slow.
  204	Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title for the passage?
  	(1) The Economic Disorder
  	(2) Indian Economy Versus The European Economy
  	(3) Global Trade
  	(4) The Current Economic Scenario
  	(5) Characteristics of the Indian Economy
  205	According to the author, which of the following would characterize Indian growth scenario in 2012?
  	(A) Domestic producerswill take a hit because of depressed global trade scenario.
  	(B) On account of its high domestic consumption, India will lead
  	(C) Indian exporters will have a hard time in gaining market share.
  	(1) Only (B)
  	(2) Only (A) and (B)
  	(3) Only (B) and (C)
  	(4) Only (A)
  	(5) All (A), (B) and (C)
  206	Why does the author not recommend taking up the reforms suggested by FLLs.
  	(1) These will bring about only mirror growth
  	(2) The reforms suggested will have no effect on the economy of our country, whereas will benefit the FLLS significantly
  	(3) The previous such recommendations had backfired
  	(4) These reforms will be the sole reason for our country’s economic downfall
  	(5) The reforms suggested by them are not to be trusted as they will not being about any positive growth in India.
  207	Which of the following is TRUE as per the scenario presented in the passage?
  	(1) The highest growth the rate that India can expect is 7 percent
  	(2) The fall in the exchange rate will prove beneficial to India
  	(3) Increased FDI in retail as suggested by FLLs would benefit India tremendously
  	(4) The reforms suggested by the author require new legislation in India
  	(5) None of these
  208	According to the author, which of the following reforms is/are needed to ensure long term growth in India?
  	(A) Improving healthcare and educational facilities.
  	(B) Bringing about reforms in taxation.
  	(C) Improving agriculture productivity.
  	(1) Only (B)
  	(2) Only (A) and (B)
  	(3) Only (B) and (C)
  	(4) Only (A)
  	(5) All (A), (B) and (C)
  	Directions (Questions: 209- 212): Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/ group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
  209	DRAWN
  	(1) entice
  	(2) push
  	(3) decoy
  	(4) attract
  	(5) persuade
  210	CLOCK
  	(1) watch
  	(2) achieve
  	(3) time
  	(4) second
  	(5) regulate
  211	ABATE
  	(1) rise
  	(2) gear
  	(3) hurl
  	(4) lessen
  	(5) retreats
  212	EMERGING
  	(1) raising
  	(2) developing
  	(3) noticaeable
  	(4) conspicuous
  	(5) uproaring
  	Directions (Questions: 213-215): Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/ group of words printed in bold as used in the passage.
  213	MYRIAD
  	(1) trivial
  	(2) difficult
  	(3) few
  	(4) effortless
  	(5) countless
  214	TEPID
  	(f) moderate
  	(g) high
  	(h) warm
  	(i) irregular
  	(j) little
  215	MYTH
  	(1) reality
  	(2) belief
  	(3) contrast
  	(4) idealism
  	(5) falsehood
  	Directions (Questions: 216- 220): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the question given below them.
  	(A) If China is the word’s factory, India has become the word’s outsourcing centre – keeping in the with this image.
  	(B) But India’s future depends crucially on its ability to compete fully the Creative Economy — not just in tech and software, but across design and entrepreneurship; arts culture and entertainment; and the knowledge-based professions of medicine, finance and law.
  	(C) While its creative assets outstrip those of other emerging competitors, India must address several challenges to increase its international competitiveness as the world is in the midst of a sweeping transformation.
  	(D) This transformation is evident in the fact that the world is moving from an industrial economy to a Creative Economy that generates wealth by harnessing intellectual labour, intangible goods and human creative capabilities.
  	(E) Its software industry is the world’s second largest, its each outsourcing accounts for more than half of the $ 300 billion global industry, according to a technology expert.
  	(F) If the meeting of world leaders at Davos is any indication, Indication, India is rapidly becoming an economic ‘rock star’.
  216	Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after the rearrangement?
  	(1) A
  	(2) B
  	(3) C
  	(4) D
  	(5) F
  217	Which of the following should be the THRID sentence after the rearrangement?
  	(1) A
  	(2) B
  	(3) C
  	(4) D
  	(5) F
  218	Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement?
  	(1) A
  	(2) B
  	(3) C
  	(4) F
  	(5) E
  219	Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement?
  	(1) F
  	(2) B
  	(3) C
  	(4) A
  	(5) E
  220	Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement?
  	(1) A
  	(2) B
  	(3) C
  	(4) D
  	(5) F
  	Directions (Questions: 221- 225): The following questions consist of a single sentence with one blank. Only are given six words denoted by A, B, C, D, E & F as answer choice and from the six choices you have to pick tow correct answer, either of which will make the sentence meaningfully complete.
  221	_____ before the clock struck 8 on Saturday night, India Gate was swamped with people wearing black tee-shirts and holding candles.
  	(A) Minutes (B) Time
  	(C) Later (D) Quickly
  	(E) Since (F) Second
  	(1) (B) and (E)
  	(2) (A) and (C)
  	(3) (A) and (F)
  	(4) (B) and (D)
  	(5) (C) and (E)
  222	The States should take steps to ______ the process to teachers’ appointments as the Centre has already sanctioned six lakh posts.
  	(A) fasten (B) move
  	(C) hasten (D) speed
  	(E) early  (F) quicken
  	(1) (D) and (F)
  	(2) (A) and (C)
  	(3) (C) and (F)
  	(4) (D) and (E)
  	(5) (B) and (D)
  223	A senior citizen ________ threatened her every day and physically harmed her, forcing her to transfer her property to him.
  	(A) superficially (B) mistakenly
  	(C) allegedly     (D) miserably
  	(E) doubtfully    (F) purportedly
  	(1) (C) and (F)
  	(2) (A) and (E)
  	(3) (C) and (E)
  	(4) (D) and (F)
  	(5) (A) and (C)
  224	Medical teachers said that the management had continued to remain ______ to their cause leading to the stretching of the strike.
  	(A) unmoved     (B) lethargic
  	(C) unconcerned (D) apathetic
  	(E) indifferent (F) bored
  	(1) (B) and (C)
  	(2) (C) and (F)
  	(3) (A) and (E)
  	(4) (A) and (D)
  	(5) (D) and (E)
  225	The parents had approached the high court to ______ the government order after their children, who passed UKG, were denied admission by a school
  	(A) void  (B) quash
  	(C) annul (D) stay
  	(E) lift  (F) post
  	(1) (A) and (D)
  	(2) (B) and (C)
  	(3) (C) and (E)
  	(4) (E) and (F)
  	(5) (C) and (D)
  	Directions (Questions: 226- 235): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is ‘5’. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any).
  226	The Government has asked individuals(A)/ with income over Rs. 10 lakhs to (B)/ electronic files tax returns for the year 2011-12 (C), / something which was optical till last year (D). No error (E)
  227	The power tariff and already (A)/ been increased twice in (B)/ the last 15 months and the Electricity Board had also (C)/ levied additional monthly charges to consumers(D)./ No error (E)
  228	Despite of curfew (A)/ in some areas, minor (B)/ communal incidents were reported (C)/ from different areas of the walled city (D)./ No error (E)
  229	This comes (A)/ at a time (B) / when fund allocation (C) / is been doubled (D)./ No error
  230	As the prison will get(A)/ an official telephone facility soon, the prisoners (B) / won’t have to make calls in discreet manner (C)/ through smuggled mobile phones (D)./ No error (E)
  231	The area was plunged into (A)/ darkness mid a wave of (B)/ cheering and shouting (C) / slogans like ‘Save The Earth’(D)./ No error (E)
  232	The poll contestants approached (A)/ the commission complaining that the hoardings (B) / violated the code of conduct (C) / and influenced public perception (D). No error (E)
  233	The country has (A)/ adequate laws but problems (B) / arise when these are not (C)/ implemented in letter and spirit.(D)/ No error (E)
  234	The Management feels that (A)/ the employees of the organisation are (B) / non-productive, and do not want (C) / to work hard (D)./ No error (E)
  235	As far the issue of land encroachment (A)/in village is concerned, people will (B)/ have to make a start from their villages by (C) / sensitize and educating the villages about this issue (D)./ No error (E)
  	Directions (Questions: 236- 240): Which of the phrase (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace the word/phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (5) as the answer.
  236	US secretary of state made it clear it time running out for diplomacy over Iran’s nuclear programme and said that talks aimed at preventing Tehran from acquiring a nuclear weapon would resume in April.
  	(1) runs out
  	(2) was running out
  	(3) ran out
  	(4) run
  	(5) No correction required
  237	While the war of the generals rage on, somewhere in small town India, wonderful things are happening, quietly and minus fanfare.
  	(1) rage
  	(2) raging
  	(3) rages on
  	(4) raged on
  	(5) No correction required
  238	According to WWF, the small island nation of Samoa was the first in switch off its lights for Each Hour.
  	(1) first to switch of
  	(2) the first to switch off
  	(3) the first of switch off
  	(4) first in switch of
  	(5) No correction required
  239	The campaign is significant because not just the youth are directly appealing to the world but because their efforts challenges the chimera of normalcy in the area.
  	(1) not just because
  	(2) just not because
  	(3) not just
  	(4) because just
  	(5) No correction required
  240	The doctor’s association has threatened to go on indefinite strike support of their teachers.
  	(1) on supporting to
  	(2) to supporting
  	(3) for support
  	(4) in support of
  	(e)No correction required
  	Directions (Questions: 241- 250): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five word/ phrase are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/ phrase in each case.
  	Greenhouse gases are only (241) of the story when it comes to global warning. Changes to one part of the climate system can (242) additional changes to the way the planet absorbs or reflects energy. These secondary changes are (243) climate feedbacks, and they could more than double the amount of warming caused by carbon dioxide alone. The primary feedbacks are (244) to snow and ice, water vapour, clouds, and the carbon cycle.
  	Perhaps the most well (245) feedback comes from melting snow and ice in the Northern Hemisphere. Warming temperature are already (246) a growing percentage of Arctic sea ice, exposing dark ocean water during the (247) sunlight of summer. Snow cover on land is also (248) inmany areas. In the of (249) snow and ice, these areas go from having bright, sunlight-reflecting surfaces that fool the planet to having dark, sunlight-absorbing surface that (250) more energy into the Earth system and cause more warming.
  241	(1) whole
  	(2) part
  	(3) material
  	(4) issue
  	(5) most
  242	(1) raise
  	(2) brings
  	(3) refer
  	(4) stop
  	(5) cause
  243	(1) sensed
  	(2) called
  	(3) nothing
  	(4) but
  	(5) term
  244	(1) due
  	(2) result
  	(3) reason
  	(4) those
  	(5) because
  245	(1) done
  	(2) known
  	(3) ruled
  	(4) bestowed
  	(5) said
  246	(1) mastering
  	(2) sending
  	(3) melting
  	(4) calming
  	(5) increasing
  247	(1) make-shift
  	(2) ceasing
  	(3) troubled
  	(4) perpetual
  	(5) absent
  248	(1) dwindling
  	(2) manufactured
  	(3) descending
  	(4) generating
  	(5) supplied
  249	(1) progress
  	(2) reduced
  	(3) existence
  	(4) midst
  	(5) absence
  250	(1) repel
  	(2) waft
  	(3) monitor
  	(4) bring
  	(5) access

  
  Check below for Answers….
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  
  Answers
  

  201.	5)
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