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IBPS PO 2012 PAPER–Reasoning
Check below for Answers…Directions (Questions: 1- 4): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions: A word and number arrangement machine when given an input line of words and numbers rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is an illustration of input and rearrangement. (All the numbers are two digits numbers) Input : tall 38 13 rise alt 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56 barn Step I : 13 tall 48 rise 99 76 32 wise jar high 28 56 barn alt
Step II : 28 13 talk 48 ruse 99 76 32 wise jar high 56 alt barn
Step III : 32 28 13 tall 48 rise 99 76wise jar 56 alt barn high
Step IV : 48 32 28 13 tall rise 99 76wise 56 alt barn high jar
Step V : 56 48 3228 13 tall 9976wise alt barn high jar rise
Step VI : 76 56 48 32 28 13 99 wise alt barn high jar rise tall
Step VII : 99 76 56 48 32 28 13 alt barn high jar rise tall wiseAnd Step VII is the last step of the above input, as the desired arrangement is obtained. As per the rules followed in the above steps, find out in each of the following questions the appropriate step for the given input. Input : 84 why sit 14 32 not best ink feet 51 27 vain 68 92 (All the numbers are two digits numbers) 1 Which step number is the following output? 32 27 14 84 why sit not 51 vain 92 68 feet best ink (1) Step V (2) Step VI (3) Step IV (4) Step III (5) There is not such step 2 Which word/number would be at 5th position from the right in Step V? (1) 14 (2) 92 (3) feet (4) best (5) why 3 How many elements (words or numbers) are there between ‘feet’ and ‘32’ as they appear in the last step of the output? (1) One (2) Three (3) Four (4) Five (5) Seven 4 Which of the following represents the position of ‘why’ in the fourth step? (1) Eight from the left (2) Fifth from the right (3) Sixth form the left (4) Fifth from the left (5) Seventh from the left Directions (Questions: 5- 11): Study the following information carefully and answer the given questions: • A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order. • B sits second to left of H’s husband. No female is an immediate neighbor of B. • D’s daughter sits second to right of F. F is the sister of G. F is not an immediate neighbor of H’s husband. • Only one person sits between A and F. A is the father of G. H’s brother Dsits to the immediate left of H’s mother. Only one person sits between H’smother and E. • Only one person sits between H and G. G is the mother of C. G is not an immediate neighbor of E. 5 What is position of A with respect to his mother-in-law? (1) Immediate left (2) Third to the right (3) Third to the left (4) Second to the right (5) Fourth to the left 6 Who amongst the following is D’s daughter? (1) B (2) C (3) E (4) G (5) H 7 What is the position of A with respect to his grandchild? (1) Immediate right (2) Third to the right (3) Third to the left (4) Second to the left (5) Fourth to the left 8 How many people sit between G and her uncle? (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four (5) More than four 9 Four of the following five are alike in a certain was based on the given information and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? (1) F (2) C (3) E (4) H (5) G 10 Which of the following is true with respect to the given seating arrangement? (1) C is the cousin of E (2) H and H’s husband are immediate neighbours of each other (3) No female is an immediate neighbour of C (4) H sits third to left of her daughter (5) B is the mother of H 11 Who sits to the immediate left of C? (1) F’s grandmother (2) G’s son (3) D’s mother-in-law (4) A (5) G Directions (Questions: 12- 18): In each group of questions below are two/three statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known facts and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two/ three statements disregarding commonly known facts. Give answer (1) if only conclusion I follows; Give answer (2) if only conclusion II follows; Give answer (3) if either conclusion I or conclusion II follows; Give answer (4) if either conclusion I nor conclusion II follows; Give answer (5) if both conclusion I and conclusion II follow. 12 Statements: Some exams are tests. No exam is a question. Conclusions: I. No equation is a test. II.Some tests are definitely not exams. Questions: 13-14. Statements: All forces are energies. All energies are powers. No power is heat. 13 Conclusions: I. Some forces are definitely not powers. II. No heat is forces. 14 Conclusions: I. No energy id heat. II. Some forces being that is a possibility. Questions: 15-16. Statements: No note is a coin. Some coins are metals. All plastics are notes. 15 Conclusions: I. No coin is plastic. II. All plastics being metals is a possibility. 16 Conclusions: I. Not metal is plastic. II. All notes are plastics. 17 Statements: Some symbols are figures. All symbols are graphics. No graphic is a picture. Conclusions: I. Some graphics are figures. II. No symbol is a picture. 18 Statements: All vacancies are jobs. Some jobs are occupations. Conclusions: I. All vacancies are occupations. II. All occupations being vacancies is a possibility. Directions (Questions: 19-21): Study the following information carefully to answer the given question: Each of the six friends, A, B, C, D, E and F second different marks in an examination. C scored more than only. A and E. D scored less than only B. E did not score the least. The one who scored the third highest marks scored 81marks. E scored 62 marks. 19 Which of the following could possibly be C’s score? (1) 70 (2) 91 (3) 86 (4) 61 (5) 81 20 Which of the following is true with respect to the given information? (1) D’s score was definitely less than 60 (2) F scored the maximum marks (3) Only two people scored more than C (4) There is a possibility that B scored 79 marks (5) None is true 21 The person who scored the maximum, scored 13 marks more than F’s marks. Which of the following can be D’s score? (1) 94 (2) 60 (3) 89 (4) 78 (5) 81 Directions (Questions: 22-29): Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions: Eight person from different viz. UCO bank, Syndicate bank, Canara bank, PNB, Dena Bank, Oriental Bank of Commerce, Indian bank and Bank of Maharashtra are sitting in two parallel rows containing four people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance between adjacent persons. In row-1 A, B, C and D are seated and all of them are facing with south. In row-2 P, Q, R and S are seated and all of them are facing north. Therefore, in the given seating arrangement each member seated in a row faces another member of the other row. (All the information given above does not necessarily represent the order of seating as in the final arrangement) • C sits second to right of the person from Bank of Maharashtra. R is an immediate neighbour of the person who faces the person from Bank of Maharashtra. • Only one person sits between R and the person for PNB. Immediate neighbour of the person from PNB faces the person from Canara Bank. • The person from UCO bank faces the person from Oriental Bank of Commerce. R is not from Oriental Bank of Commerce. P is not from PNB. P does not face the person from Bank of Maharashtra. • Q faces the person from Dena bank. The one who faces S sits to the immediate left of A. • B does not sit at any of the extreme ends of the line. The person from Bank of Maharashtra does not face the person from Syndicate bank. 22 Which of the following is true regarding A? (1) The person from UCO bank faces A (2) The person from Bank of Maharashtra is an immediate neighbour of A (3) A faces the person who sits second to right of R (4) A is from Oriental Bank of Commerce (5) A sits at one of the extreme ends of the line 23 Who is seated between R and the person from PNB? (1) The person from Oriental Bank of Commerce (2) P (3) Q (4) The person from Syndicate bank (5) S 24 Who amongst the following sit at extreme ends of the rows? (1) D and the person from PNB (2) The person from Indian bank of UCO bank (3) The person from Dena bank and P (4) The person from Syndicate bank and D (5) C, Q 25 Who amongst the following faces the person Bank of Maharashtra? (1) The person from Indian bank (2) P (3) R (4) The person from Syndicate bank (5) The person from Canara bank 26 P is related to Dena bank in the same way as B is related to PNB based on the given arrangement. To who amongst the following id D related to, following the same pattern? (1) Syndicate bank (2) Canara Bank (3) Bank of Maharashtra (4) Indian bank (5) Oriental Bank of Commerce 27 Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given seating arrangement and thus from a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group? (1) Canara bank (2) R (3) Syndicate bank (4) Q (5) Oriental Bank Of Maharashtra 28 Who amongst the following is form Syndicate bank? (1) C (2) R (3) P (4) D (5) A 29 C is from which of the following banks? (1) Dena bank (2) Oriental Bank of Commerce (3) UCO bank (4) Syndicate bank (5) Canara bank Directions (Questions: 30- 34): Each of the question below consists of a question and three statements numbered I, II and III given below it. You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements are sufficient to answer the question. Read all the three statements and— Give answer (1) if the data in Statement I and II are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement III are not required to answer the question Give answer (2) if the data in Statement I and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement III are not required to answer the question Give answer (3) if the data in Statement II and III are sufficient to answer the question, while the data in Statement III are not required to answer the question Give answer (4) if the data in either Statement I alone or Statement II alone or Statement III alone are sufficient to answer the question. Give answer (5) if the data in all Statement I, II and III together are necessary to answer the question. 30 Among six people P, Q, R, S, T and V each lives on a different floor of a six storey building having six floors numbered one to six (the ground floor is numbered 1, the floor above it, number 2 and so on and the topmost floor is numbered 6). Who lives on the topmost floor? (1) There is only one floor between the floors on which R and Q live. P lives on an even numbered floor. (2) T does not live on an even numbered floor. Q lives on an even numbered floor. Q does not live on the topmost floor. (3) S lives on an odd numbered floor. There are two floors between the floors on which S and P live. T lives on a floor immediately above R’s floor. 31 There are six letters W, A, R, S, N and E. Is ‘ANSWER’ the word formed after performing the following operations using these sex letters only? (1) E is placed fourth to the right of A. S is not placed immediately next to either A or E. (2) R is placed immediately net (either left or right) to E. W is placed immediately next (either left or right) to S. (3) Both N and W are placed immediately next to S. The word does not begin with R. A is not placed immediately next to W. 32 Point D is in which direction with respect to Point B? (1) Point A is to the west of Point B. Point C is to the north of Point B. Point D is 9m from Point B. (2) Point G is to the south of Point D. Point G is 4m from Point B. Point D is 9m from Point B. (3) Point A is to the west of Point B. Point B is exactly midway between Points A and E. (4) Point F is to the south of Point E. Point D is to the west of Point F. 33 How is ‘one’ coded in the code language? (1) ‘one of its kind’ is coded as ‘zo pi ko fe’ in kind and cash’ is coded as ‘ga to ru ko’ (2) ‘its point for origin’ is coded as ‘ba le fe mi’ and ‘make a point clear’ is coded as ‘yu si mi de’ (3) ‘make money and cash’ is coded as ‘tu mi ru hy’ and ‘money of various kind’ is coded as ‘qu ko zo hy’. 34 Are all the four friends viz. A, B, C and D who are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre? (1) B sits second to right of D. D faces the centre. C sits to immediate right of both B and D. (2) A sits to immediate left of B. C is not an immediate neighbour of A. C sits to immediate right of D. (3) D is an immediate neighbour of both A and C. B sits to the immediate left of A. C is sits to the immediate right of B. 35 Read the following information carefully and answer the question which follows: Farmers found using chemical fertilizers in the organic-farming area of their farms would be heavily fined. Which of the following statement is an assumption implicit in the given statement? (1) Chemical fertilizers harm the crop. (2) A farm’s area for organic and chemical farming is different (3) Farmers who do not use chemical fertilizers in the chemical farming area would be penalized as well. (4) All farmers undertake both these kinds of farming (chemical as well as organic) in their farms. (5) Organic fertilizers are banned in the area for chemical farming. Directions (Questions: 36- 40): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions which follow: Small brands are now looking beyond local grocary stores adn are tying up with Supermarkets such as Big Bazar to pull their business out of troubled waters. 36 Which of the following can be inferred from the given information? (An inference is something that is not directly states but can be inferred from the given information) (1) Merchandise of smaller brands would not be available at local grocery stores in the near future. (2) Smaller brands cannot compete with bigger one in a supermarket set-up. (3) There is a perception among small brands that sale in a supermarket is higher than that of small grocery stores. (4) Supermarkets generate more revenue by selling products of bigger brands as compared to the smaller ones. (5) Smaller brands have always had more tie-ups with supermarkets as compared to small grocery stores. Directions (Questions: 37- 40): 37-40. These questions are based on the information given above and the sentences labeled (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F), as given below. (A) A smaller brand manufacturing a certain product of quality comparable with that of a bigger brand, makes much more profit from the local grocery stores than from the supermarkets. (B) As the supermarkets have been set up only in bigger cities at present, this step would fail to deliver result in the smaller cities. (C) Supermarkets help the smaller brands to break into newer markets without investing substantially in distribution. (D) Supermarkets charge the smaller brands 10% higher than the amount charged to the bigger brands. (E) Being outnumbered by the bigger brands, visibility of the smaller at local grocery stores is much lower as compared to the supermarkets. (f) Smaller brands are currently making substantial losses in their businesses. 37 Which of the statements numbered (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) can be assumed from the facts/information given in the statement? (An assumption is something supposed or taken for granted) (1) Only (A) (2) Only (B) (3) Both (B) and (C) (4) Both (C) and (D) (5) Only (F) 38 Which of the statements numbered (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) represents a disadvantage of the small grocery stores over the Supermarkets from the perspective of a smaller brand? (1) Only (A) (2) Only (C) (3) Only (E) (4) Only (F) (5) Both (B) and (C) 39 Which of the statements (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) mentioned above represents a reason for the shift from local grocery stores to supermarkets by the smaller brands? (1) Only (A) (2) Only (B) (3) Only (D) (4) Both (A) and (D) (5) Both (C) and (E) 40 Which of the statements numbered (A), (B), (C) (E) and (F) mentioned above should prove that the step taken by the smaller brands (of moving to supermarkets) may not necessarily be correct? (1) Only (A) (2) Only (C) (3) Only (E) (4) Only (F) (5) Both (B) and (5) Directions (Questions: 41- 50): In each of the question given below which one of the five answer figures on the right should come after the problem figures on the left, if the sequence were continued? 41 
42 
43 
44 
45 
Directions (Questions: 46- 50): In each of the following question below, the figure follow a series/sequence (like Q. 41- 45). One and only one out of the five figures does not fit in the series/sequences. The number of that figure is your answer. 46 
47 
48 
49 
50 
Answers
1. 4) 2. 2) 3. 2) 4. 3) 5. 4) 6. 3) 7. 1) 8. 3) 9. 2) 10. 5) 11. 1) 12. 4) 13. 2) 14. 1) 15. 5) 16. 4) 17. 5) 18. 2) 19. 1) 20. 5) 21. 3) 22. 2) 23. 5) 24. 4) 25. 1) 26. 4) 27. 4) 28. 3) 29. 5) 30. 5) 31. 1) 32. 5) 33. 5) 34. 4) 35. 4) 36. 3) 37. 1) 38. 3) 39. 1) 40. 5) 41. 2) 42. 1) 43. 4) 44. 3) 45. 5) 46. 5) 47. 4) 48. 5) 49. 1) 50. 5)
Showing posts with label IBPS PO 2012 PAPER. Show all posts
Showing posts with label IBPS PO 2012 PAPER. Show all posts
Monday, October 7, 2013
IBPS PO 2012 PAPER–Reasoning
IBPS PO 2012 PAPER–English Language
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IBPS PO 2012 PAPER–English Language
Directions (Questions: 201-215): Read the following passage carefully and answer the question given below it. Certain words/phrases have been printed in bold to help you locate them while answering some of the questions. When times are hard, doomsayers are aplenty. The problem is that if you listen to them too carefully, you tend to overlook the most obvious signs of change. 2011 was a bad year. Can 2012 be any worse? Doomsday forecasts are the easiest to make these days. So let’s try a contrarian’s forecast instead. Let’s start with the global economy. We have seen a steady flow of good news from the US. The employment situation seems to be improving rapidly and consumer sentiment, reflected in retail expenditures on discretionary items like electronics and clothes, has picked up. If these trends sustain, the US might post better growth numbers for 2012 than the 1.5 – 1.8 per cent being forecast currently.
Japan is likely to pull out of a recession in 2012 as post-earthquake reconstruction efforts gather momentum and the fiscal stimulus announced in 2011 begins to pay off. The consensus estimate for growth in Japan is a respectable 2 per cent for 2012.
The “hared-landing” scenario for China remains and will remain a myth. Growth might decelerate further from the 9 per cent that expected to clock in 2011 but is unlikely to drop below 8-8.5 per cent in 2012.
Europe is certainly in a spot to trouble. It is perhaps already in recession and for 2012 it is likely to post mildly negative growth. The risk of implosion has dwindled over the last few months – peripheral economics like Greece, Italy and Spain have new governments in place and have made progress towards genuine economic reform.
Even with some of these positive factors in place, we have to accept to fact that global growth in 2012 will be tepid. But there is a flipside to this. Softer growth means lower demand for commodities and this is likely to drive a correction in commodity prices. Lower commodity inflation will enable emerging market central banks to reserve their monetary stance. China, for instance, has already reversed its stance and has pared its reserve ratio twice. The RBI also seems poised for a reversal in its rate cycle as headline inflation seems well on its way to its target of 7 per cent for March 2012.
That said, oil might be an exception to the general trend in commodities. Rising geographical tensions, particularly the continuing face-off between Iran and the US, might lead to a spurt in prices. It might make sense for our oil companies to hedge this risk instead of buying oil in the spot market.
As inflation fears abate and emerging market central banks begins to cut rates, two things could happen. Lower commodity inflation would mean lower interest rates and better credit availability. This could set a floor to growth and slowly reverse the business cycle within these economies. Second, as the fear
of untamed, runaway inflation in these economies abates, the global investor’s comfort levels with their markets will increase.
Which of the emerging markets will outperform and who will get left being? In an environment in which global growth is likely to be weak, economies like India that have a powerful domestic consumption dynamic should lead; those dependent on exports should, prima facie, fall behind. Specifically for India, a fall in the exchange rate could not have come at a better time. It will help Indian exporters gain market share even if global trade remains depressed. More importantly, it could lead to massive import substitution that favours domestic producers.
Let’s now focus on India and start with a caveat. It is important not to confuse a short-run cyclical dip with a permanent de-rating of its long-term structural potential. The arithmetic is simple. Our growth rate can bin the range of 7-10 per cent depending on policy action. Then per cent if we get everything right, 7 per cent if we get it all wrong. Which policies and reforms are critical to taking us to our 10 per cent potential? In judging this, let’s again be careful. Let’s not go by the laundry list of reforms that FLLs like to wave: increase in foreign equity limits in foreign shareholding, greater voting rights for institutional shareholders in banks, FDI in retail, etc. These can have an impact only at the margin. We need not bend over backwards to appease the FLLs through these reforms they will invest in our markets when momentum picks up and will be the first to exit when the momentum flags, reforms or not.
The reforms that we need are the ones that can actually raise our sustainable long-term growth rate. These have to come in areas’ like better targeting of subsides, making projects in infrastructure viable of that they draw capital,
raising the productivity of agriculture, improving healthcare and education, bringing the parallel economy under the tax net, implementing fundamental reforms in taxation like GST and the direct tax code and finally easing the myriad rules and regulations that make doing business in India such a nightmare. A number of these things do not require new legislation and can be done through executive order.201 Which of the following is NOT TRUE according to the passage? (1) China’s economic growth may decline in the year 2012 as compared to the year 2011 (2) The European economy is not doing very well (3) Greece is on the verge of bringing about economic reforms (4) In the year 2012, Japan may post a positive growth and thus pull out of recession (5) All are true 202 Which of the following will possibly be a result of softer growth estimated for the year 2012? (A) Prices of oil will not increase (B) Credit availability would be lesser. (C) Commodity inflation would be lesser. (1) Only (B) (2) Only (A) and (B) (3) Only (A) and (C) (4) Only (C) (5) All (A), (B) and (C) 203 Which of the following can be said about the present status of the US economy? (1) There is not much improvement in the economic scenario of the country from the year 2011 (2) The growth in the economy of the county, in the year 2012, would definitely be lesser than 1.8 per cent (3) The expenditure on clothes and electronic commodities, by consumers, is lesser than that in the year 2011 (4) There is a change that in 2012 the economy would be better than what has been forecast (5) The pace of change in the employment scenario of the country is very slow. 204 Which of the following is possibly the most appropriate title for the passage? (1) The Economic Disorder (2) Indian Economy Versus The European Economy (3) Global Trade (4) The Current Economic Scenario (5) Characteristics of the Indian Economy 205 According to the author, which of the following would characterize Indian growth scenario in 2012? (A) Domestic producerswill take a hit because of depressed global trade scenario. (B) On account of its high domestic consumption, India will lead (C) Indian exporters will have a hard time in gaining market share. (1) Only (B) (2) Only (A) and (B) (3) Only (B) and (C) (4) Only (A) (5) All (A), (B) and (C) 206 Why does the author not recommend taking up the reforms suggested by FLLs. (1) These will bring about only mirror growth (2) The reforms suggested will have no effect on the economy of our country, whereas will benefit the FLLS significantly (3) The previous such recommendations had backfired (4) These reforms will be the sole reason for our country’s economic downfall (5) The reforms suggested by them are not to be trusted as they will not being about any positive growth in India. 207 Which of the following is TRUE as per the scenario presented in the passage? (1) The highest growth the rate that India can expect is 7 percent (2) The fall in the exchange rate will prove beneficial to India (3) Increased FDI in retail as suggested by FLLs would benefit India tremendously (4) The reforms suggested by the author require new legislation in India (5) None of these 208 According to the author, which of the following reforms is/are needed to ensure long term growth in India? (A) Improving healthcare and educational facilities. (B) Bringing about reforms in taxation. (C) Improving agriculture productivity. (1) Only (B) (2) Only (A) and (B) (3) Only (B) and (C) (4) Only (A) (5) All (A), (B) and (C) Directions (Questions: 209- 212): Choose the word/group of words which is most similar in meaning to the word/ group of words printed in bold as used in the passage. 209 DRAWN (1) entice (2) push (3) decoy (4) attract (5) persuade 210 CLOCK (1) watch (2) achieve (3) time (4) second (5) regulate 211 ABATE (1) rise (2) gear (3) hurl (4) lessen (5) retreats 212 EMERGING (1) raising (2) developing (3) noticaeable (4) conspicuous (5) uproaring Directions (Questions: 213-215): Choose the word/group of words which is most opposite in meaning to the word/ group of words printed in bold as used in the passage. 213 MYRIAD (1) trivial (2) difficult (3) few (4) effortless (5) countless 214 TEPID (f) moderate (g) high (h) warm (i) irregular (j) little 215 MYTH (1) reality (2) belief (3) contrast (4) idealism (5) falsehood Directions (Questions: 216- 220): Rearrange the following six sentences (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) and (F) in the proper sequence to form a meaningful paragraph; then answer the question given below them. (A) If China is the word’s factory, India has become the word’s outsourcing centre – keeping in the with this image. (B) But India’s future depends crucially on its ability to compete fully the Creative Economy — not just in tech and software, but across design and entrepreneurship; arts culture and entertainment; and the knowledge-based professions of medicine, finance and law. (C) While its creative assets outstrip those of other emerging competitors, India must address several challenges to increase its international competitiveness as the world is in the midst of a sweeping transformation. (D) This transformation is evident in the fact that the world is moving from an industrial economy to a Creative Economy that generates wealth by harnessing intellectual labour, intangible goods and human creative capabilities. (E) Its software industry is the world’s second largest, its each outsourcing accounts for more than half of the $ 300 billion global industry, according to a technology expert. (F) If the meeting of world leaders at Davos is any indication, Indication, India is rapidly becoming an economic ‘rock star’. 216 Which of the following should be the SIXTH (LAST) sentence after the rearrangement? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) F 217 Which of the following should be the THRID sentence after the rearrangement? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) F 218 Which of the following should be the FIFTH sentence after the rearrangement? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) F (5) E 219 Which of the following should be the FIRST sentence after the rearrangement? (1) F (2) B (3) C (4) A (5) E 220 Which of the following should be the SECOND sentence after the rearrangement? (1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5) F Directions (Questions: 221- 225): The following questions consist of a single sentence with one blank. Only are given six words denoted by A, B, C, D, E & F as answer choice and from the six choices you have to pick tow correct answer, either of which will make the sentence meaningfully complete. 221 _____ before the clock struck 8 on Saturday night, India Gate was swamped with people wearing black tee-shirts and holding candles. (A) Minutes (B) Time (C) Later (D) Quickly (E) Since (F) Second (1) (B) and (E) (2) (A) and (C) (3) (A) and (F) (4) (B) and (D) (5) (C) and (E) 222 The States should take steps to ______ the process to teachers’ appointments as the Centre has already sanctioned six lakh posts. (A) fasten (B) move (C) hasten (D) speed (E) early (F) quicken (1) (D) and (F) (2) (A) and (C) (3) (C) and (F) (4) (D) and (E) (5) (B) and (D) 223 A senior citizen ________ threatened her every day and physically harmed her, forcing her to transfer her property to him. (A) superficially (B) mistakenly (C) allegedly (D) miserably (E) doubtfully (F) purportedly (1) (C) and (F) (2) (A) and (E) (3) (C) and (E) (4) (D) and (F) (5) (A) and (C) 224 Medical teachers said that the management had continued to remain ______ to their cause leading to the stretching of the strike. (A) unmoved (B) lethargic (C) unconcerned (D) apathetic (E) indifferent (F) bored (1) (B) and (C) (2) (C) and (F) (3) (A) and (E) (4) (A) and (D) (5) (D) and (E) 225 The parents had approached the high court to ______ the government order after their children, who passed UKG, were denied admission by a school (A) void (B) quash (C) annul (D) stay (E) lift (F) post (1) (A) and (D) (2) (B) and (C) (3) (C) and (E) (4) (E) and (F) (5) (C) and (D) Directions (Questions: 226- 235): Read each sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical error or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is ‘No error’, the answer is ‘5’. (Ignore errors of punctuation, if any). 226 The Government has asked individuals(A)/ with income over Rs. 10 lakhs to (B)/ electronic files tax returns for the year 2011-12 (C), / something which was optical till last year (D). No error (E) 227 The power tariff and already (A)/ been increased twice in (B)/ the last 15 months and the Electricity Board had also (C)/ levied additional monthly charges to consumers(D)./ No error (E) 228 Despite of curfew (A)/ in some areas, minor (B)/ communal incidents were reported (C)/ from different areas of the walled city (D)./ No error (E) 229 This comes (A)/ at a time (B) / when fund allocation (C) / is been doubled (D)./ No error 230 As the prison will get(A)/ an official telephone facility soon, the prisoners (B) / won’t have to make calls in discreet manner (C)/ through smuggled mobile phones (D)./ No error (E) 231 The area was plunged into (A)/ darkness mid a wave of (B)/ cheering and shouting (C) / slogans like ‘Save The Earth’(D)./ No error (E) 232 The poll contestants approached (A)/ the commission complaining that the hoardings (B) / violated the code of conduct (C) / and influenced public perception (D). No error (E) 233 The country has (A)/ adequate laws but problems (B) / arise when these are not (C)/ implemented in letter and spirit.(D)/ No error (E) 234 The Management feels that (A)/ the employees of the organisation are (B) / non-productive, and do not want (C) / to work hard (D)./ No error (E) 235 As far the issue of land encroachment (A)/in village is concerned, people will (B)/ have to make a start from their villages by (C) / sensitize and educating the villages about this issue (D)./ No error (E) Directions (Questions: 236- 240): Which of the phrase (1), (2), (3) and (4) given below each sentence should replace the word/phrase printed in bold in the sentence to make it grammatically correct? If the sentence is correct as it is given and no correction is required, mark (5) as the answer. 236 US secretary of state made it clear it time running out for diplomacy over Iran’s nuclear programme and said that talks aimed at preventing Tehran from acquiring a nuclear weapon would resume in April. (1) runs out (2) was running out (3) ran out (4) run (5) No correction required 237 While the war of the generals rage on, somewhere in small town India, wonderful things are happening, quietly and minus fanfare. (1) rage (2) raging (3) rages on (4) raged on (5) No correction required 238 According to WWF, the small island nation of Samoa was the first in switch off its lights for Each Hour. (1) first to switch of (2) the first to switch off (3) the first of switch off (4) first in switch of (5) No correction required 239 The campaign is significant because not just the youth are directly appealing to the world but because their efforts challenges the chimera of normalcy in the area. (1) not just because (2) just not because (3) not just (4) because just (5) No correction required 240 The doctor’s association has threatened to go on indefinite strike support of their teachers. (1) on supporting to (2) to supporting (3) for support (4) in support of (e)No correction required Directions (Questions: 241- 250): In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed below the passage and against each, five word/ phrase are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find out the appropriate word/ phrase in each case. Greenhouse gases are only (241) of the story when it comes to global warning. Changes to one part of the climate system can (242) additional changes to the way the planet absorbs or reflects energy. These secondary changes are (243) climate feedbacks, and they could more than double the amount of warming caused by carbon dioxide alone. The primary feedbacks are (244) to snow and ice, water vapour, clouds, and the carbon cycle. Perhaps the most well (245) feedback comes from melting snow and ice in the Northern Hemisphere. Warming temperature are already (246) a growing percentage of Arctic sea ice, exposing dark ocean water during the (247) sunlight of summer. Snow cover on land is also (248) inmany areas. In the of (249) snow and ice, these areas go from having bright, sunlight-reflecting surfaces that fool the planet to having dark, sunlight-absorbing surface that (250) more energy into the Earth system and cause more warming. 241 (1) whole (2) part (3) material (4) issue (5) most 242 (1) raise (2) brings (3) refer (4) stop (5) cause 243 (1) sensed (2) called (3) nothing (4) but (5) term 244 (1) due (2) result (3) reason (4) those (5) because 245 (1) done (2) known (3) ruled (4) bestowed (5) said 246 (1) mastering (2) sending (3) melting (4) calming (5) increasing 247 (1) make-shift (2) ceasing (3) troubled (4) perpetual (5) absent 248 (1) dwindling (2) manufactured (3) descending (4) generating (5) supplied 249 (1) progress (2) reduced (3) existence (4) midst (5) absence 250 (1) repel (2) waft (3) monitor (4) bring (5) access
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Answers
201. 5) 202. 3) 203. 4) 204. 4) 205. 1) 206. 1) 207. 5) 208. 5) 209. 2) 210. 5) 211. 4) 212. 2) 213. 3) 214. 1) 215. 1) 216. 4) 217. 3) 218. 1) 219. 4) 220. 2) 221. 3) 222. 1) 223. 3) 224. 2) 225. 1) 226. 5) 227. 5) 228. 1) 229. 4) 230. 1) 231. 2) 232. 3) 233. 1) 234. 5) 235. 2) 236. 1) 237. 3) 238. 2) 239. 1) 240. 4) 241. 4) 242. 5) 243. 2) 244. 1) 245. 2) 246. 3) 247. 5) 248. 1) 249. 5) 250. 4)
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